Company with no enity in India
I’m seeking your professional opinion regarding a legal threat I recently received from my former employer, a Malaysian company referred to here as XYZ Company, where I was engaged as a remote Digital Strategist. I am an Indian citizen and was working from India throughout the duration of the engagement. XYZ Company has no legal entity or presence in India. Here are the relevant facts: I signed a Service Engagement Contract with XYZ Company dated 30 August 2022. This was structured as a contractor engagement, not formal employment, and involved remote work from India. The contract includes a 60-day notice period upon confirmation, but does not contain any clause imposing financial penalties, reimbursement, or liquidated damages for failing to serve the full notice. It also lacks a jurisdiction or governing law clause. On 24 June 2025, I submitted my resignation due to hostile working conditions and concerns for my personal well-being. I provided a professional handover, submitted final reports, and communicated that my final working day would be 1 July 2025—approximately 48 days short of the 60-day notice. This was done in good faith and with transparency. On 10 July 2025, I received a demand letter from their HR team requesting RM 10,838.71 (approximately ₹2 lakh), citing the unserved notice period and stating they "reserve the right to pursue civil legal action without further notice." The correspondence appears designed to create pressure rather than being grounded in enforceable legal rights. Additionally, the address they have for me is outdated, and I have not provided them with an updated one. My specific queries are as follows: Can XYZ Company, with no Indian presence, file a civil suit directly in India against me for breach of contract? If so, what procedural requirements (Power of Attorney, jurisdiction, court fees, valid service, etc.) would they need to comply with, and how likely is it that a civil court in India would admit such a claim? Alternatively, if they pursue a money decree in Malaysia, how viable is it to enforce that judgment in India under Section 44A of the CPC? Does the absence of a penalty clause, combined with a lack of demonstrated damages, make this claim unenforceable under Indian contract law? Should I respond formally to this demand or refrain from engaging further unless a formal legal notice is served? Do the circumstances surrounding my resignation support a constructive dismissal defense, should the matter escalate? I would greatly appreciate your professional guidance on how to navigate this situation and protect myself from potential escalation. I am open to a brief consultation and to retaining your services should further representation be needed. Thank you for your time and expertise.
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