Sale Deed for dda flat
2 years ago
The property i am purchasing has 2 sellers on the registry with no shareholding definition. Now the seller 1 is requesting all payment to be made in his favor and willing to furnish any document from seller 2 to substantiate this (no conflict between seller 1 and 2). Is this in accordance with the law? If yes, how do we execute this?
A.Dear Client,
It's important to understand the relationship between Seller 1 and Seller 2, as well as the type of document Seller 1 is ready to accept from Seller 2. Whether both sellers will sign the Sale Deed or whether Seller 1 has any GPA on Seller 2. There are no specifications in your question.
Let us know if you require further clarifications.
Thank you!
It's important to understand the relationship between Seller 1 and Seller 2, as well as the type of document Seller 1 is ready to accept from Seller 2. Whether both sellers will sign the Sale Deed or whether Seller 1 has any GPA on Seller 2. There are no specifications in your question.
Let us know if you require further clarifications.
Thank you!
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A.Dear Sir,
You will be in trouble unless one of the owner he has court decree in his favour.
I could have explained more if background is known to me.
Please give me FIVE STAR if satisfied by my answers.
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Advocate Sinjari Bandyopadhyaya
Responded 2 years ago
A.It is necessary to know the relationship of the Seller 1 and Seller 2 and what sort of document Seller 1 is willing to furnish from Seller 2. Whether both sellers will execute Sale Deed or Seller 1 is holding any GPA of Seller 2. Until and unless relevant facts are known,legal opinion can't be given.
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