AFTER PARTITION DEED ANCESTRAL PROPERTY BECAME SELF ACQUIRED OR NOT AFTER PARTITION DEED ANCESTRAL PROPERTY BECAME SELF ACQUIRED OR NOT

2 years ago

Land got from great grand father to grand father).
After grandfather death his sons acquired his land and with mutual, family arrangement all of them took equal share and updated the same in ROR and received pattadar passbook on their names. All sons are still alive. After 30 years now elder son applied for partition deed and received the same on his name. Now after partition the property became self acquired or still remains as ancestral property.

Also I want to understand any of the elder one (son's) can claim on the property or he can give it to any one according to his wish.

When consulted a lawyer he is saying after partition land in his name became self acquired. Plz clarify

Anik

Responded 2 years ago

View All Answers
A.Dear Client,

As per the facts which have been provided, if Partition Deed has been registered then it becomes a self acquired property and the owner of a self acquired property can transfer the property to anyone as per his/her choice.

Hope this clarifies your doubt and requirement.

Thank you.
Helpful
Helpful
Share

Post Your Matter Post Your Matter

Talk to a Lawyer Talk to a Lawyer

Ask a question Ask a question

Vidhi Samaadhaan Vidhi Samaadhaan

Kishan Dutt Kalaskar

Responded 2 years ago

View All Answers

A.Dear Sir,
Dear Sir,
What does the grandparent's property law in India state? Does the grandson own the right to the property?
All property's owned by a Hindu person devolves onto his class one legal heir's.

Now to the specific scenario's in ur example (for sake of convenience I'm presuming ur ur grandfather has only one legal heir)

Senario1: The property is self acquired by your Grandfather, in such case upon his demise interstate (without a will) the property would devolve upon ur Father and not you. In case your farther passes away before your grandfather then it such case it would be devolve upon you, your mother and ur siblings equally.

Scenario 2: the property in question is self acquired by ur grandfather father ( ur great grand farther) - would devolve same as scenario 1.

Scenario 3: the property in question is self acquired by ur grandfather grand father ( ur great great grand farther) - would devolve same as scenario 1.

Scenario 4: the property in question is self acquired by ur grandfathers great grand father ( ur great great great grand farther) - then in such a case you would be entitled to the property by birth as it becomes ur ancestral property.

To give you more clarity on the concept of Ancestral Property's : any property which passes undivided down 4 generations of male lineage is called ancestral property. The right to such property acures at birth unlike other laws of inheritance where right arises upon the death of the the owner.

Hope this brings some clarity to your question and your sense of entitlements.
Meaning of ancestral property in India-An ancestral property means a propertywhich is devolved upon heirs by the 3 generations above them; father, father's fatheror father's fathers' father. ... That means when a coparcener acquires his share inancestral property than he can make a will to that share and bequest it.
Meaning of ancestral property in India-An ancestral property means a property which is devolved upon heirs by the 3 generations above them; father, father’s father or father’s fathers’ father. It passes to the next three generations.
Meaning of will-A will means a document in which a person specifies the method to be applied in management and distribution of properties after his death.
The basic principle involved is that the property should be four generations old. The right to use and acquire property is accrued by persons through birth itself. The division of property is per stripes i.e. that share of one generation is calculated first than the share of successive generations is subdivided according to share of their predecessor. These basic elements are for governing majorly the Hindus.
If A inherits property, whether movable or immovable, from his father or father’s father, or father’s father’sfather, it is ancestral property as regards his male issue. If A has no son, son’s son, or son’s son’s son in existence at the time when he inherits the property, he holds the property as absolute owner thereof, and he can deal with it as he pleases . A person inheriting property from his three immediate paternal ancestors holds it, and must hold it, in coparcenary with his sons, sons’ sons and sons’ sons’ sons but as regards other relations he holds it and is entitled to hold it, as his absolute property.”[1]
Now answer to the question is that that will to ancestral property is not entirelyillegal. That means when a coparcener acquires his share in ancestral property than he can make a will to that share and bequest it. However will shall be executed after the death of the testator and if the coparcener before acquiring a share makes a will than that will be illegal. Share in ancestral property will be inherited by coparceners. So he can make a will to his share in ancestral property.As whatever he acquires is his share now and he can dispose his assets according to his wishes.
Surender Kumar vs Dhani Ram CS (OS) No.1737/2012 decided on 18th January, 2016 Hon’ble Mr. J. Valmiki Mehta of Delhi High Court ruled-
If a person dies after passing of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and there is no HUF existing at the time of the death of such a person, inheritance of an immovable property of such a person by his successors-in-interest is no doubt inheritance of an ‘ancestral’ property but the inheritance is as a self acquired property in the hands of the successor and not as an HUF property although the successor(s) indeed inherits ‘ancestral’ property i.e. a property belonging to his paternal ancestor.

Helpful
Helpful
Share

Post Your Matter Post Your Matter

Talk to a Lawyer Talk to a Lawyer

Ask a question Ask a question

Vidhi Samaadhaan Vidhi Samaadhaan

Advocate Sinjari Bandyopadhyaya

Responded 2 years ago

A.If that Partition Deed had been executed in Registered manner, then that property becomes self acquired property of that person and he is entitled to dispose of the same in Registered manner to any person of his choice and none of his legal heirs and heiresses has any legal right to prevent him from doing so.
Helpful
Helpful
Share

Post Your Matter Post Your Matter

Talk to a Lawyer Talk to a Lawyer

Ask a question Ask a question

Vidhi Samaadhaan Vidhi Samaadhaan

Read Related Answers

question iconHeavy Deposit Money Not Returning
Dear Client, Your query requires more details to address it suitably. You expressed your concern but not a cause of action behind that concern that attracts a legal remedy. It is a virtual platform w...
question iconSon harnessing mom for her property
Dear Client, If the property left by your deceased father intestate, i.e, that is without any will and it is his self-acquired property, all the surviving legal heirs of his family including your moth...
question iconTransfer of Membership in the records of RWA
Dear Client, In the given situation, please keep the track of encashment status of all PDCs issued to the Association for all purposes, and once all PDCs are encashed as per the Bank Statement, contac...
question iconRemove wifes name from share certificate & sale deed of property due to dispute
Dear Client, Your wife need to execute a relinquishment deed or gift deed in your favor to remove her name from the sale deed. If she denies it, you can file a suit for declaration before the civil co...
question iconForcefully shifting PG
Dear Client, A dispute between a tenant/PG and landlord/Building owner is resolved under the state-specific Rent Control Act under which a Rent Controller or Addl Rent Controller is appointed to deal...